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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 13:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why is that Hag Hillary Clinton so quiet these days? She is the dog that isn't barking

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Is anal sex allowed in Islam? It's not written anywhere in the Quran whether it's forbidden or not.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.